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CISI International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management Sample Questions (Q235-Q240):
NEW QUESTION # 235
An investor with a liability due in eight years' time wants to purchase bonds to fund this liability. If a barbell strategy is adopted, a suitable initial portfolio would be:
- A. 4 bonds with 8-year durations and 4 bonds with 10-year durations
- B. 3 bonds, each with 8-year durations
- C. 2 bonds with 6-year durations and 2 bonds with 10-year durations
- D. 6 bonds, each with 10-year durations
Answer: C
Explanation:
A barbell strategy combines bonds at the short and long ends of the maturity or duration spectrum rather than concentrating holdings around the target date. The aim is to achieve an overall portfolio duration that matches the liability horizon while benefiting from diversification across different parts of the yield curve. Here the liability is due in eight years, so the portfolio's overall duration should initially be close to eight. Option C mixes 6-year and 10-year duration bonds. If held in equal proportions, the weighted average duration is 8 years, aligning the portfolio's interest rate sensitivity to the timing of the liability. This is consistent with liability-focused fixed income management: matching duration reduces the risk that changes in interest rates will cause the portfolio value to move in a way that jeopardises meeting the liability. Options A and D are not barbell constructions because they concentrate at, or close to, the target duration rather than splitting exposure between shorter and longer durations. Option B is too long in duration and would create a mismatch, increasing sensitivity to interest rate movements relative to an eight-year liability.
NEW QUESTION # 236
Which class of mutual fund shares has a charging structure that avoids a front-end load?
- A. Class B
- B. Class D
- C. Class C
- D. Class A
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 237
A professional trader was given some price-sensitive, unpublished information in relation to a major grain supplier. As a direct result, they buy futures contracts on grain. Have they committed the offence of insider trading?
- A. Yes, regardless of profit or loss
- B. No, futures on commodities are not defined as securities under insider trading regulations
- C. Only if they make a profit
- D. No, provided the futures contract is held to expiry
Answer: B
Explanation:
Performance attribution analysis evaluates the performance of a portfolio by breaking it into components attributed to specific investment decisions. These include:
* Asset Allocation: The decision on the proportion of the portfolio allocated to different asset classes (e.
g., stocks, bonds).
* Sector Choice: Selecting specific sectors (e.g., technology, healthcare) within asset classes.
* Security Selection: Choosing individual securities within the selected sectors.
Risk analysis, while critical for investment management, is not typically part of standard performance attribution frameworks.
References:
* International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management: Portfolio performance evaluation section.
* Standard attribution models: Brinson, Hood, and Beebower model widely used in performance attribution.
NEW QUESTION # 238
If a hedge fund is engaging in equity arbitrage, it is likely that they are pursuing:
- A. A market-neutral strategy
- B. An absolute return strategy
- C. A non-directional strategy
- D. An event-driven strategy
Answer: A
Explanation:
* Equity Arbitrage and Hedge Funds:
* Equity arbitrage involves taking offsetting positions in related equity securities to profit from price differentials.
* A market-neutral strategy eliminates overall market risk by balancing long and short positions, focusing on relative price movements rather than market direction.
* Elimination of Other Options:
* A: Absolute return aims for consistent returns regardless of market conditions but is not specific to equity arbitrage.
* C: Event-driven strategies target corporate events (e.g., mergers), not arbitrage.
* D: Non-directional is a general description but lacks specificity compared to market-neutral.
References:
* ICWIM Module 3: Coverage of hedge fund strategies and market neutrality.
NEW QUESTION # 239
A fund manager would be keen to improve the alpha of a fund because:
- A. It has not outperformed the benchmark
- B. As alpha improves, so does beta
- C. It will become more attractive to risk-averse clients
- D. The fund will be easier to manage
Answer: A
Explanation:
Alpha (#) measures a fund's excess return relative to its benchmark. A positive alpha indicates outperformance, while a negative alpha means underperformance.
Why is Option A Correct?
A fund manager aims to improve alpha to outperform the benchmark (e.g., S&P 500, FTSE 100).
If a fund's alpha is negative, it has not beaten the benchmark, indicating poor active management.
Why Not Other Options?
B (Easier to manage) # A high-alpha strategy often requires active management, which can be complex.
C (Improves beta) # Alpha is independent of beta (systematic risk).
D (Attractive to risk-averse clients) # High alpha does not necessarily mean low risk.
# Reference: CFA Institute (Alpha & Beta), CISI Wealth & Investment Management.
NEW QUESTION # 240
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